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Author Topic: LR Question, Prep Test 31  (Read 409 times)

P. Pius

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LR Question, Prep Test 31
« on: September 08, 2007, 05:04:31 PM »
Appliance dealer:  Appliance manufacturers commonly modify existing models without giving the modified versions new model names.  Some people have complained that this practice makes it impossible for consumers to be certain that the appliance they are about to purchase is identical to the one they may have seen at a neighbor's or read about in a consumer magazine.  Yet manufacturers's modifications to existing models are invariably improvements that benefit the buyer.  Therefore, consumers have little reason to object to this practice.

Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the dealer's arguements?

A)  Appliance are generally purchased with the expectation that they will continue to be used for several years.
B)  Appliances generally carry a model number that provides substansially more detailed information about the product than does the model name.
C)  Appliance manufacturers frequently sell identical products under several different model names.
D)  Improved versions of appliances typically become available before vendors have stopped selling the older versions of the appliances with the same model name.
E)  The high cost of product advertising makes appliance manufacturers generally more reluctant to change model names to reflect modifications to their products.

The correct choice is D, however I was lost on this question and ended up going with B.  Not really sure how I arrived at that selection, but none of the other choices seemed correct to me.  Can anyone help clarify this problem for me?  Thanks!
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JusAccrescendi

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Re: LR Question, Prep Test 31
« Reply #1 on: September 08, 2007, 09:40:54 PM »
The dealer is arguing that, because manufacturer modifications always result in an improved product, the consumer has little reason to object to the practice of using indentical appliance names for modified versions of the same appliance.

Seems like a somewhat plausible claim, right?

(D) presents a consideration that weakens the position, however, because what if a particular manufacturer has two versions of one appliance out, both under the same name? The first version will always be inferior to the second version, but because they're both named the same, the consumer might buy the inferior version and therefore have a reasonable objection to the naming convention.
I have studied and thoroughly mastered the laws of logic. So to argue that I sometimes violate the laws of logic in ordinary conversation would be like arguing that some physicist circumvents the laws of physics in everyday life.

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