I could swear the credited response for the following question (from PrepTest 2) is wrong."There is little point in looking to artists for insights into political issues. Most of them hold political views that are less insightful than those of any reasonably well-educated person who is not an artist. Indeed, when taken as a whole, the statements made by artists, including those considered to be great, indicate that artistic talen and political insight are rarely found together."Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?I did not find any answer particularly appealing, but I do feel like the credited response was clearly wrong. The answer is"Some artists are no less politically insightful than some reasonably well-educated persons who are not artists."The stimulus says, essentially, that most artists have less insightful political views than well-educated non-artists. However, most does not preclude the possibility of all (since the concept of all contains the concept of most), and for this reason, I don't see how we can infer that some artists are no less politically insightful than non artists. This is possible, but not necessarily the case.Does anyone have any input on this?
Quote from: belushi018 on July 01, 2009, 12:40:18 PMI could swear the credited response for the following question (from PrepTest 2) is wrong."There is little point in looking to artists for insights into political issues. Most of them hold political views that are less insightful than those of any reasonably well-educated person who is not an artist. Indeed, when taken as a whole, the statements made by artists, including those considered to be great, indicate that artistic talen and political insight are rarely found together."Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?I did not find any answer particularly appealing, but I do feel like the credited response was clearly wrong. The answer is"Some artists are no less politically insightful than some reasonably well-educated persons who are not artists."The stimulus says, essentially, that most artists have less insightful political views than well-educated non-artists. However, most does not preclude the possibility of all (since the concept of all contains the concept of most), and for this reason, I don't see how we can infer that some artists are no less politically insightful than non artists. This is possible, but not necessarily the case.Does anyone have any input on this? I do believe that for purposes of the LSAT, most does not imply the possibility of all. It means the greatest of multiple amounts, therefore there has to be some that are not in the most category.
Contrarian, I would have agreed with you. However, the Powerscore Logical Reasoning Bible (one of the most definitive prep books out there) clearly disagrees. Page 315 breaks down what they call "The Logic Ladder." This is what they say:"if a statement is made that 'all waiters like wine,' then you automatically know that 'most waiters like wine,' and 'some waiters like wine.' The same is true for most relationships, but to a more limited extent. If 'most waiters like wine,' then you automatically know that 'some waiters like wine.' But because most is below all on the Logic Ladder, you do not know with certainty that 'all waiters like wine' (it is possibly true, but not certain)"All of that was a quote from powerscore. The very last part--"it is possibly true, but not certain--is what I'm talking about. If we say "Most artists know less about politics than not artists," according to Powerscore, it's still possible that "all artists know less about politics than non artists," and, if that's the case, we can't infer that some artists know as much as non artists about politics. So, it seems to me that either Powerscore is wrong, or the test is wrong. Since this is from Preptest 2, I'm tempted to believe the latter is the case. Thoughts?