Hey guys, my crim law exam is tomorrow. I'm just trying to clear something up. Are there situations where you can aid and abet a crime but not be liable under conspiracy? The professor asked the question in class when we were discussing it, but we never resolved it. Its clear that it can work the other way, but I can't think of a way that there would be aiding and abetting without an agreement to engage in a criminal enterprise as well?Thanks for your help!