Law School Discussion

Real Estate Transactions Hypo/Question


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Real Estate Transactions Hypo/Question
« on: May 01, 2006, 11:51:16 PM »
Go easy on me. We covered real estate in a week:

Seller sells the property to Buyer 2 illegimately after he has signed the OTP and the PSA with Buyer 1. Buyer 1 will sue Seller for breach of the PSA, but since the OTP is now considered a binding contract in most states, can Buyer 1 theoretically sue for breach of both the PSA AND the OTP (not that the result matters anyway because he can sue for breach of the PSA anyway)?