I apologize for the misleading subject... I was wondering if anyone knows of any case(s) dealing with sexual misconduct involving "sexual touching... with any object by a man or woman upon a man..includ[ing] any bodily contact with the breast..."
In other words, do men, in the context of legal precedent or statute, have breasts, and if so, has there been a case involving sexual misconduct of that nature?
I am asking bc I got into a rather "heated" discussion in my Crim Law class with some of the students (the professor didn't say a word) and I would like some clarification. Here is the statute in question:
Sexual Misconduct II
• Any intentional sexual touching, however slight, with any object by a man or womanupon a man or woman without effective consent. Sexual touching includes any bodilycontact with the breasts, groin, genitals, mouth or other bodily orifice of another or anyother bodily contact in a sexual manner