Law School Discussion

I have a very interesting question/case for anyone who feels up to a VERY SERIOUS question. Here is an excerpt from a contract (real) that I would like clarification on its meaning, or at least your interpretation.

It is a contract written to sell property.

Selling price = $129,500
Prorated Taxes = $800
Transfer Tax = $129.50
3% of 129500 = $3885

"c. All costs to be paid as follows:
    Seller to pay closing costs up to 3% of selling price, to include all costs associated with section d. below

d. Taxes will be prorated as of the date of closing. Seller to pay Georgia real estate transfer tax."

The rest of the contract is standard, but hte dispute lies in the actual amount that the buyer and the seller will "bring" to the table.

I would like anyone who is interested, using the dollar amounts listed, to give me their best interpretaton of contract and how much both the seller and buyer should be responsible.

Thanks

I apologize for the misleading subject... I was wondering if anyone knows of any case(s) dealing with sexual misconduct involving "sexual touching... with any object by a man or woman upon a man..includ[ing] any bodily contact with the breast..."

In other words, do men, in the context of legal precedent or statute, have breasts, and if so, has there been a case involving sexual misconduct of that nature?

I am asking bc I got into a rather "heated" discussion in my Crim Law class with some of the students (the professor didn't say a word) and I would like some clarification. Here is the statute in question:

Sexual Misconduct II
• Any intentional sexual touching, however slight, with any object by a man or womanupon a man or woman without effective consent. Sexual touching includes any bodilycontact with the breasts, groin, genitals, mouth or other bodily orifice of another or anyother bodily contact in a sexual manner

I was honorably discharged from the U.S. Navy on 12/26/04, but on all of my apps I stated that my service would be until 5/26/05 because I had submitted an extension. However, I decided to withdraw my extension bc the possibility existed that I might get a couple internships.

Well... I got both internships I applied for. One is with my congressman and the other is with the D.A.'s office. Since I am not working and i have VA benefits to pay for school I am able to do both.

How should I inform the schools of my employment change?... and will it make a difference that I am beginning an internship or will they not care bc I am just STARTING?

Any advice is greatly appreciated?

Recently at the Atlanta forum, I had the pleasure of meeting the Director of Admissions for my TOP choice school. She was very nice and spent at least twenty minutes telling me why I should definitely apply - which shocked bc of my numbers (LSAT). I think my experience as a veteran sparked her interest. After mentioning my militiary experience, she placed a * next to my name on the event roster and told me to call her and she would set me up out there.

My question is this... Does that mean anything and if so I email her now that my file is complete or would that seem desperate?

Did anyone else have a really enthusiastic conversation at the forum?

I need some valuable insight on my situation:

I am a seven year veteran, currently on active duty until Dec 26, 2004. My LSAT is a 151 and my current (institutional) GPA is a 4.0. Prior to my service I attended a community college for 2 semesters w/ a GPA of 1.85. I am 30 credits from my B.A and my cum. GPA is ~3.2. Based upon my standards and recent performance i fully anticipate graduating cum laude. I have also volunteered for CASA and I am doing graduate level research with one of my professors. What are my options? Am I screwed? My target schools are UGA, UT, Mercer, Stetson and GA State. Any input would be greatly appreciated.